Slavs and Jews, Slavic and Semitic...❓️🤷🏻‍♂️

There are lots of intriguing similarities between the various Slavic Languages, and the Semitic Hebrew and Aramaic (Aramaic was the West Semitic = meaning, a Sister-Language to Arabic and Hebrew - Language, which was spoken at Modern-day's Syria 3,000 years ago. During the age of their empire, the Assyrians [8th to 7th Centuries BCE], and later also the Babylonians [6th Century BCE] and the Persians [6th to 4th Century BCE], have turned it into the Lingua Franca for the entire Fertile Crescent region, so, by the Persian era and later, it had become the only Language spoken there for daily Life, completely replacing the various national tongues, from Akkadian to Hebrew: jesus and his friends, for example, did pray in Hebrew, of course - but spoke Aramaic. Later, from the Arab concquest of said region during the 7th Century CE, and the resulting islamization, the vast majority of the population haa gradually switched to Arabic).

Some of these are easily explicable - after all, Jews have been living, at all Slavic-speaking countries, for over a millennium by now; of course there shall be similarities. Ĥowever...

Take the Slavic main preposition for "in", for example, which is "v" (Latin) / "в" (Cyrillic). Сейчас, in Hebrew it is "בּ"/"ב" (Latin "b"/"v", Cyrillic "б"/"в"). Or the Slavic (well, at least in Russian and Czech) word for "there": "tam"/"там". It is also the Aramaic word for "there" - absolutely the same!! In Hebrew, by the way, it is "שׁם" ("šam"/"шам"), as Hebrew Š is, oftentimes, interchangeable with Aranaic T. A coincidence? I doubt it.

And, the thing is: these elements, are common to both Russian and Czech = two Languages whose Ancestor-Languages had separated during Roman times, the latest!! So, later Jewish migration, from about 1,000 CE onwards if not later, cannot possibly explain that.

Unless...

What if, already back on the Hellenistic, or early Roman era (meaning, sometime between, say, 302 BCE and 180 CE), a group of Jews, either migrating from Anatolia (where there already had been Jewish communities back then), or from Judea post 70, or 135 CE (meaning, after the Romans had abolished Jewish autonomy, as a response to the two failed Jewish rebellions), had actually made it all the way up North, till the Slavs' Ancestral Homeland, at Modern-Day's ukraine and ♥️Belarus🇧🇾♥️? And, while there, enriching the Local Ancient Slavic Language with Semitic words and forms, before becoming completely assimilated in the Local Slavic Culture, abandoning both Language and religion, and becoming Slavs themselves?